Why "?T" instead of "T?"?

With conditional types gone, is there any reason not to use
the clearer "T?" for a nullable type?  It's compatible with
C# and with the "T!" syntax.

-- 
All Gaul is divided into three parts: the part          John Cowan
that cooks with lard and goose fat, the part            http://ccil.org/~cowan
that cooks with olive oil, and the part that            cowan at ccil.org
cooks with butter. -- David Chessler

Ah, good catch. Until recently there was a syntactic ambiguity with
conditional expressions. But with the recent introduction of type
expressions that is no longer the case; T? and T?x:y no longer co-occur
in the same syntactic context. I'll propose to the working group that we
restore symmetry between T! and T?. Cool!

Jd

-----Original Message-----
From: es4-discuss-admin at mozilla.org
[mailto:es4-discuss-admin at mozilla.org] On Behalf Of John Cowan
Sent: Monday, June 12, 2006 7:45 PM
To: es4-discuss at mozilla.org
Subject: Why "?T" instead of "T?"?

With conditional types gone, is there any reason not to use
the clearer "T?" for a nullable type?  It's compatible with
C# and with the "T!" syntax.

-- 
All Gaul is divided into three parts: the part          John Cowan
that cooks with lard and goose fat, the part
http://ccil.org/~cowan
that cooks with olive oil, and the part that            cowan at ccil.org
cooks with butter. -- David Chessler
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